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If I where to dilute my 2mg 60/40 liquid to 1mg with VG, how much PG will be left in the mix?
submitted over 4 years ago by srgBilko

Simple math exercise. But not for me)

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4 points
 
by yizarionover 4 years agoAlchemy 100

80/20

To dilute 2mg/ml to 1mg/ml you need to half it, meaning you add the same volume of VG.

Here is a trick for same volumes:

The liquid you have is 60/40 and the liquid you add is 100/0 so a simple trick is to join them and then "fix" the ratio to sum as 100. Int this case division by 2. Meaning: 60/40 -> 160/40 -> 80/20.

Another approach is to pick a convenient volume, such as 100ml. So you know 60ml are VG and 40ml are PG. Adding the same volume as VG will yield 160ml of VG, so 160ml out of the new total of 200ml are 80% (160 / 200 = 0.8)

1 points
 
by mysticalbuffaloover 4 years ago

What's the target volume?

1 points
 
by Binsky89over 4 years ago

It would have to be twice the starting volume, so the starting volume doesn't matter here.

1 points
 
by mysticalbuffaloover 4 years ago

Right, target or finished volume.

I guess I was trying to help OP with a method that involved 0 math, but wasn't sure of the mixing goal.

The way I would do it would be to split the original bottle in half into 2 bottles of the same size as the original then top the new ones off with VG leaving 1mg/ml and a ratio of 80/20 VG/PG.

0 points
 
by Kroliver14over 4 years agoMixologist

2mg of 60:40 has 1.2mg vg and 0.8mg pg.

If you add 1mg vg you now have 2.2mg vg and 0.8mg pg.

New ration is 2.2:1.8

Or "simplified" to 73:27

1 points
 
by Barbarakeover 4 years ago

I think you're mis-reading the question.

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